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Question 1 of 40
1. Question
A 26-year-old woman calls after business hours to speak to the on-call physician due to 2 days of burning with urination. The patient’s urine also appears cloudy, and she has had to urinate every 2 hours. She has had no abdominal or flank pain, fever, chills, or vaginal or urethral discharge. Approximately a year ago, the patient had similar symptoms and was treated with an antibiotic for uncomplicated cystitis. She has been sexually active with 1 partner for 6 years. Her last menstrual period was 2 days ago. The patient has a copper-containing intrauterine device for contraception. She has no medication allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
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Question 2 of 40
2. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 2 items. The items in the set must be answered in sequential order. Once you click Proceed to Next Item, you will not be able to add or change an answer.
A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and fever that started 3 days ago. The patient initially had 3 or 4 stools per day for 2 days but, today, had 7 watery stools; the stools have not had gross blood or mucus or black discoloration. The patient has also had generalized weakness and malaise. Two weeks ago, he was treated with oral antibiotics for acute cellulitis. Since then, the patient’s appetite has decreased, and he has had mild bloating. He has no history of recent travel, unusual foods, or sick contacts with similar symptoms. Other medical conditions include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Temperature is 38.7 C (101.7 F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 95/min. Physical examination shows moderate abdominal tenderness. The cellulitis has resolved. Leukocytes are 26,000/mm3, serum creatinine is 1.9 mg/dL (increased from 1.2 mg/dL 2 months ago), and serum albumin is 2.9 g/dL. The patient does not want to be admitted to the hospital and would like to be treated as an outpatient.
Item 1 of 2
The patient is at most risk for developing which of the following complications?
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Question 3 of 40
3. Question
Item 2 of 2
Stool PCR testing for Clostridioides difficile PCR is positive. The patient is adamant about going home. He is given a prescription for oral fidaxomicin and discharged home against medical advice. The patient returns 2 days later feeling much worse. He says, “I just got the pills today and have taken only one dose.” Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 24/min. The patient appears uncomfortable. The abdomen is distended, and bowel sounds are decreased; there is tenderness and guarding to palpation. CT scan of the abdomen shows diffuse colonic wall thickening and dilation. In addition to the appropriate oral pharmacotherapy, what is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 4 of 40
4. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 3 items.
A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to 7 days of fever and dry cough. She has also had progressive shortness of breath with minimal walking and climbing stairs. The patient was diagnosed with HIV infection a year ago and is not currently on antiretroviral treatment. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.4 C (101.1 F), blood pressure is 110/64 mm Hg, pulse is 106/min, and respiratory rate is 26/min. Pulse oxymetry is 87% on room air and decreases to 82% with minimal walking. Oropharyngeal thrush is present. Lung auscultation reveals scattered bilateral crackles and rhonchi. The abdomen is soft and nontender without organomegaly. No cyanosis, clubbing, or edema is present. Chest x-ray reveals diffuse interstitial opacities bilaterally. CD4 count is 85/mm3. The patient is admitted and started on empiric therapy. Twenty-four hours after admission, the induced sputum analysis is negative for Pneumocystis.
Item 1 of 3
Which of the following is the likely cause of this patient’s pneumonia?
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Question 5 of 40
5. Question
Item 2 of 3
Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for the use of corticosteroids in this patient?
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Question 6 of 40
6. Question
Item 3 of 3
On day 2 of hospitalization, the patient develops worsening dyspnea and hypoxia. Repeat chest x-ray reveals worsened interstitial infiltrate. Due to significant tachypnea and poor oxygenation, the patient is intubated. The patient is currently receiving trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, prednisone, ceftriaxone, and azithromycin. Blood cultures from admission are negative at 48 hours. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 7 of 40
7. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 3 items. The items in the set must be answered in sequential order. Once you click Proceed to Next Item, you will not be able to add or change an answer.
A 26-year-old man comes to the office after learning that one of his sexual partners tested positive for HIV. The patient has had intermittent headaches, malaise, nausea, and blurry vision over the last several weeks. He has had no fever, sore throat, skin rash, genital lesions, or weight loss. The patient has no prior history of sexually transmitted infections or chronic medical problems. He smokes a pack of cigarettes daily, consumes alcohol occasionally, and does not use illicit drugs. The patient has had multiple sexual partners over the last several years and does not use condoms consistently. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F), blood pressure is 122/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. There is no scleral icterus, oropharyngeal lesions, or skin rash. Mild, generalized lymphadenopathy is present. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are normal. Cranial nerves, deep tendon reflexes, and sensation are normal. No nuchal rigidity is present. Ophthalmologic examination reveals no abnormalities. Screening HIV immunoassay is positive. Other laboratory studies are as follows:
Serum HIV RNA (viral load)
2 million copies/mL
CD4+ cell count
250/mm3
Rapid plasma reagin
positive, 1:128 titer
A subsequent fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test is positive. Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the head reveals no space-occupying lesions.
Item 1 of 3
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient’s treponemal infection?
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Question 8 of 40
8. Question
tem 2 of 3
Additional tests are performed and are normal. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
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Question 9 of 40
9. Question
Item 3 of 3
Several hours after the appropriate treatment for the syphilis is administered, the patient develops a fever and headache and feels “achy all over.” On repeat evaluation, temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F), blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 105/min. The remainder of the physical examination is unchanged. Which of the following could have prevented this patient’s current condition?
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Question 10 of 40
10. Question
A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic because he “feels terrible and can barely get out of bed.” Two days ago, he started feeling feverish and sweaty. He then developed persistent headache, fatigue, sore throat, and aching in his muscles and joints. The patient has no chronic medical issues and takes no medications. He has been sexually active with 2 women over the past few months and rarely uses condoms. The patient smokes a pack of cigarettes and drinks 2-4 alcoholic beverages daily. Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F), blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 16/min. The patient is ill-appearing with flushed, damp skin. An erythematous maculopapular rash is present on his face, trunk, palms, and soles. Oropharyngeal examination shows a shallow, tender ulcer with white exudate on the posterior oropharynx. Several enlarged, discrete, mobile lymph nodes are present in the cervical, axillary, and occipital regions. Lung auscultation is unremarkable, and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended with no hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory results are as follows:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin
15.7 g/dL
Platelets
120,000/mm3
Leukocytes
1,600/mm3
Neutrophils
85%
Eosinophils
2%
Lymphocytes
8%
Monocytes
5%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current symptoms?
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Question 11 of 40
11. Question
A 28-year-old hospital phlebotomist comes to the occupational health clinic 30 minutes after a needlestick injury following a blood draw from an HIV-positive patient. The patient is on antiretroviral therapy for a drug-sensitive virus, has an undetectable viral load, and has no history of viral hepatitis. The phlebotomist has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medications; immunizations, including hepatitis B, are up to date. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in management of this hospital employee?
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Question 12 of 40
12. Question
A 42-year-old man comes to the hospital with a 4-day history of periodic fever, chills, headache, and myalgias. For the past day, he also had mild abdominal discomfort, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has no chest pain, cough, dyspnea, or diarrhea. He returned from an African safari 2.5 weeks ago, and family members who traveled with him have no symptoms. The patient has no past known medical problems. His temperature is 39.4 C (103 F), blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 114/min and regular. On examination, he is diaphoretic and uncomfortable. There is mild pharyngeal erythema without exudates or lymphadenopathy. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. There is no neck stiffness. The abdomen is soft with mild generalized tenderness and splenomegaly. He has no skin rash. Neurologic examination is normal.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Complete blood count Hemoglobin 12.0 g/dL Platelets 103,000/mm3 Leukocytes 3,600/mm3 Serum chemistry Sodium 137 mEq/L Chloride 104 mEq/L Bicarbonate 18 mEq/L Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL Liver function studies Total bilirubin 1.3 mg/dL Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT) 62 U/L Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT) 74 U/L Chest x-ray reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following interventions could have prevented his current condition?
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Question 13 of 40
13. Question
A 33-year-old man with no prior medical history comes to the emergency department due to abdominal discomfort that began 24 hours ago. He describes the discomfort as a dull ache in his abdomen that is accompanied by nausea and malaise. Approximately 3 weeks ago, he abruptly developed pain in his hands, ankles, and knees. This was quickly followed by a pruritic rash that initially involved only his lower abdomen but then spread to his entire trunk and extremities. He also had low-grade fevers over the same period. He has had no recent travel or insect bites but reports using intravenous heroin over the last year. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 14/min. Examination shows moist mucous membranes and poor dentition with no lesions in the oropharynx. Lung fields are clear with normal S1 and S2. The abdomen is soft and mildly tender in the right upper quadrant with a palpable liver 3 cm below the costal margin. The joints of his hands, ankles, and knees are diffusely tender to palpation but without erythema or edema. Scattered skin lesions that are raised, erythematous, and well-defined are noted over his trunk and extremities. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum chemistry
Sodium
136 mEq/L
Potassium
4.2 mEq/L
Chloride
102 mEq/L
Bicarbonate
26 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen
10 mg/dL
Creatinine
1.2 mg/dL
Liver function tests
Total protein
8.5 g/dL
Albumin
4.0 g/dL
Total bilirubin
4.3 g/dL
Direct bilirubin
2.8 g/dL
Alkaline phosphatase
70 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase
1,107 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase
1,523 U/L
Hepatitis panel
Hepatitis B core antibody, IgM
positive
Hepatitis B surface antigen
positive
Which of the following has the most similar pathophysiological mechanism to that of this patient’s current condition?
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Question 14 of 40
14. Question
A 77-year-old man calls the office on a Sunday evening due to fever and cough. The patient has had a “cold” for several days but noticed worsened productive cough, fever, and chills over the last 24 hours. He says “I know it’s just a cold and will get better, but my wife worries too much and made me call.” The patient has a history of hypertension, chronic kidney disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and osteoarthritis. He has had to use his albuterol inhaler more frequently during the last few days due to shortness of breath. He has also been taking over-the-counter cough syrup without improvement. The patient is up to date with influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. He is a former smoker and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. He lives with his wife, who has early-stage dementia. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
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Question 15 of 40
15. Question
A 53-year-old woman comes to the office due to 3 days of fever, headaches, severe myalgias, and weakness. She has had dry cough but no wheezing, shortness of breath, or chest pain. The patient’s sister recently had similar symptoms. The patient received the influenza vaccine a week ago. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications except over-the-counter supplemental vitamins. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or recreational drugs. She is not allergic to any medications. Temperature is 38.2 C (100.8 F), blood pressure is 133/78 mm Hg, pulse is 101/min, and respirations are 14/min. BMI is 29 kg/m2. The patient appears flushed but in no distress. The oropharynx is hyperemic with no exudates. Mild cervical lymphadenopathy is present. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. Throat swab for influenza A viral antigen is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
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Question 16 of 40
16. Question
A 37-year-old man is admitted for purulent cellulitis of the right leg. The patient has obesity and chronic venous stasis of the lower extremity. He awoke yesterday with pain and redness of the right calf, which rapidly spread to the midthigh and are now associated with purulent drainage. No abscess is present. The patient has no previous episodes of cellulitis and no known drug allergies. Intravenous vancomycin is initiated. Approximately 20 minutes later, the patient develops generalized pruritus and diffuse erythema of the upper torso and face. He also reports muscle cramping. Temperature is 39.6 C (103.3 F), blood pressure is 98/64 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 24/min. Pulse oximetry is 96% on room air. The patient has no wheezing or stridor. In addition to the area of cellulitis, skin examination shows diffuse blotchy erythroderma but no urticaria. The infusion is stopped, and diphenhydramine is administered. Symptoms improve significantly within 15 minutes. Repeat temperature is 39.2 C (102.6 F), blood pressure is 126/90 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 20/min. Which of the following drug-induced processes is most likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
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Question 17 of 40
17. Question
A 26-year-old woman is evaluated for redness, swelling, and pain in the right breast following nipple piercing. The primary care physician is concerned for a breast abscess and advises the patient that she will need a breast ultrasound for confirmation, followed by consultation with a breast surgeon for drainage of the abscess and further management. After performing the ultrasound, the breast radiologist confirms the presence of a deep abscess. The patient asks, “Is there a doctor here who can drain it, so I don’t have to drive somewhere else?” The breast radiologist is well trained in ultrasound-guided aspiration of deep abscesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the patient from the radiologist?
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Question 18 of 40
18. Question
A 27-year-old HIV-positive man comes to the emergency department with shortness of breath, dry cough, and right-sided chest pain since yesterday. The chest pain is worse when he takes a deep breath or coughs. He has had chills and night sweats for the last week, which he has attributed to the flu. The patient has been hospitalized for opioid overdose several times in the past. Four months ago, he was admitted and treated for aspiration pneumonia. Last year he was hospitalized for cocaine overdose complicated by tonic-clonic seizures. His most recent CD4 lymphocyte count was 190/mm3 2 months ago. He has no drug allergies. In the emergency department he appears mildly uncomfortable and has shallow breathing. Temperature is 39.4 C (103 F), blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min and regular, and respirations are 22/min. BMI is 19 kg/m2. Pulse oximetry is 95% on room air. There are multiple needle tracks and a painful subcutaneous mass in the right antecubital area. The neck veins are flat with the patient in semi-recumbent position. There is a 2/6 systolic murmur heard at the left sternal border. The liver is palpated 1 cm below the costal margin and is nontender. Chest x-ray reveals nodular opacities in both lung fields, including subpleural opacities on the right. Serum potassium is 3.8 mg/dL and creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL. Blood cultures are obtained and intravenous fluids are initiated. Which of the following is most likely to establish the diagnosis in this patient?
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Question 19 of 40
19. Question
A 30-year-old man is seen in the office due to recently diagnosed HIV infection. The patient did not previously have testing for HIV, and the duration of infection is unknown. He is asymptomatic; physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Immunologic and rheumatologic studies
Hepatitis panel
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
positive
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
negative
Hepatitis C antibody
negative
HIV-1 RNA quantification (viral load)
15,000 copies/mL
Syphilis detection test (VDRL)
negative
Toxoplasma gondii antibody
negative
Tuberculin skin test (PPD)
3-mm induration
Lymphocytes
CD4 T lymphocytes
150 cells/mm3
The patient has had no vaccinations since learning of his HIV diagnosis. Which of the following is indicated in this patient?
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Question 20 of 40
20. Question
A 45-year-old female presents to your office with fever, malaise and facial rash. The symptoms started acutely one day ago, and she took two tablets of ibuprofen to relieve the fever. Her past medical history is insignificant. She works as a clerk at a private office, and is not physically active. She smokes two packs of cigarettes daily, and consumes alcohol occasionally. She denies any recreational drug use. She has no known allergies. She is sexually active in a monogamous relationship with her husband. The rash is shown below.
Other physical findings are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?
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Question 21 of 40
21. Question
A 33-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up for a persistent cough. About 6 weeks ago, the patient developed paroxysms of severe coughing, especially at night. She was seen in the office 3 weeks ago, at which time vital signs were normal and examination was unremarkable. Chest x-ray revealed clear lungs, and pertussis PCR was positive. The patient was then prescribed a 5-day course of azithromycin. Today, she has a persistent cough and is frustrated about her lack of improvement despite taking the antibiotics as prescribed. Examination is unchanged. Which of the following is the best response?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 22 of 40
22. Question
A previously healthy 43-year-old man comes to the office during the early fall due to a 4-week history of cough. He initially had a “bad cold” that lasted about 10 days. The sneezing, runny nose, and muscle aches that accompanied the cold have improved, but the cough has persisted and worsened. The patient has “bursts of coughing” for several minutes as he feels unable to clear the mucus. On at least 5 occasions, these attacks were so severe that he vomited afterward. The patient is a children’s karate teacher. He received all of his childhood vaccinations but has not seen a physician in many years. There is no history of recent travel. Vital signs and physical examination are normal. Chest x-ray is unrevealing. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
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Question 23 of 40
23. Question
A 64-year-old woman with a known history of myasthenia gravis comes to the emergency department with 2 days of fever and worsening headaches and neck pain. She was admitted to another hospital 8 days ago for myasthenic crisis precipitated by urinary tract infection. She was treated with ceftriaxone and intravenous immunoglobulin and discharged home 3 days ago to complete a course of oral antibiotics. Her other medical problems include hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medications include metformin, glyburide, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and mycophenolate. The patient’s temperature is 38.3 C (101 F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. She is awake and oriented. Moderate neck pain and stiffness are present. She moves all extremities to command and has symmetrical deep-tendon reflexes. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory results are as follows:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin
11.8 g/dL
Leukocytes
13,000/mm3
Serum chemistry
Blood urea nitrogen
18 mg/dL
Creatinine
0.8 mg/dL
Cerebral spinal fluid
Opening pressure
250 mm H2O
Glucose
30 mg/dL
Protein
180 mg/dL
Leukocytes
2,500/mm3
Neutrophils
90%
Lymphocytes
10%
Red blood cells
5/mm3
Cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain and culture show no organisms. Cerebrospinal fluid cryptococcal antigen is negative. CT scan of the head without contrast is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
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Question 24 of 40
24. Question
A 27-year-old previously healthy man comes to the office for sexually transmitted infection screening. A month ago, the patient had a sexual encounter with a woman he met at a bar. He used a condom but discovered that it ruptured during intercourse. The woman denied having sexually transmitted infections. The patient has no dysuria, urethral discharge, or genital lesions but wants to be tested for infections. He is a graduate student and occasionally drinks alcohol but does not use tobacco or injection drugs. He has had several female sexual partners and uses condoms consistently. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. The patient appears anxious. Oropharyngeal mucosa is normal without any lesions. No enlarged lymph nodes are present. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. External genitalia appear normal. Bilateral testes are soft, nontender, and of normal size. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient?
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Question 25 of 40
25. Question
A 46-year-old HIV-positive man is hospitalized with fever, cramping abdominal pain, and watery diarrhea. Evaluation shows high fever, hypotension, tachycardia, and lower abdominal distension and tenderness. Abdominal x-ray reveals free intraperitoneal air, and the patient is taken for urgent exploratory laparotomy. Operative findings include an erythematous and dilated colon. A focus of bowel wall necrosis with perforation is resected. Histopathologic analysis reveals acute inflammatory changes, epithelial necrosis, and a layer of denuded epithelium, fibrin, and inflammatory cells overlaying the mucosa. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient’s current condition?
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Question 26 of 40
26. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 2 items. The items in the set must be answered in sequential order. Once you click Proceed to Next Item, you will not be able to add or change an answer.
A 19-year-old man comes to the student health center due to 2 days of burning pain during urination. He has also had itching of the urethral meatus but no urinary discharge, fever, chills, or rash. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. He had unprotected sexual intercourse with a new female partner a week ago. The patient has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily since age 14. He drinks alcohol on weekends and does not use illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. There is scant, watery urethral discharge at the urethral meatus. There are no genital ulcers, rashes, erythema, or inguinal lymphadenopathy. Urethral swab is performed, and Gram stain of the urethral fluid reveals many neutrophils but no organisms. Nucleic acid amplification tests of the urine are sent for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Item 1 of 2
This patient’s symptoms are most likely to respond to which of the following?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 27 of 40
27. Question
Item 2 of 2
The patient received treatment with a single dose of azithromycin but returns to the office 2 weeks later due to continued burning with urination. Since his previous visit, he has had no urethral discharge, fever, chills, scrotal pain, rash, or additional sexual encounters. Nucleic acid amplification testing from his prior visit was negative for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. Screening for syphilis with rapid plasma reagin and for HIV with fourth-generation HIV testing was also negative. No urethral discharge is present, and the remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 28 of 40
28. Question
A 28-year-old man comes to the office due to a rash on his right cheek. Two weeks ago, he was in central Pennsylvania exploring caves when he scraped his cheek on a fallen tree branch outside a cave. The abrasion healed over a few days, but a red bump soon appeared at the injury site. The bump gradually enlarged and began to drain clear fluid with no odor. Two similar bumps then developed near the previous lesion. The patient has had no fever, malaise, cough, or shortness of breath. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 14/min. A 1.5-cm erythematous nodule with central ulceration is noted at the right jaw line. There is minimal amount of serous drainage from the lesion. Two smaller erythematous nodules are present in the right anterior cervical area along the cervical lymphatic vessels. Adjacent cervical lymph nodes are normal sized and nontender. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 29 of 40
29. Question
A 32-year-old woman comes to the office due to 3 days of sore throat and cough productive of white sputum. She has also had malaise, nausea, and headache but no shortness of breath. No close contacts have had similar symptoms. The patient has a history of hypertension and acne; she takes lisinopril and uses benzoyl peroxide cream. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient is monogamous with her husband. Family history is significant for chronic kidney disease in her father. She is allergic to penicillin, which causes a rash. Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F), blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, pulse is 83/min, and respirations are 14/min. Oropharyngeal examination reveals pharyngeal erythema, palatal petechiae, and bilateral white, patchy tonsillar exudates. There are 2 tender, 1.5-cm lymph nodes in the anterior cervical chain. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and nontender. No other lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, or rashes are present. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action in management of this patient?
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Question 30 of 40
30. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 2 items.
A 52-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to a day of fever, lethargy, and skin lesions. She is currently undergoing combination chemotherapy for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, and her last treatment was 10 days ago. Yesterday, the patient developed a red rash on her right thigh. Within a few hours, a pustule formed in the center of the lesion, rapidly evolved into a dark bulla, and then ruptured and formed an ulcer. A second, similar skin lesion arose shortly thereafter. The patient has also had fever and chills and progressive weakness and lethargy. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 106/min. She has an implanted central venous catheter with a subcutaneous port; the overlying skin is not erythematous or tender. Cardiopulmonary auscultation reveals clear lung fields and no cardiac murmurs. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Skin examination shows a nontender, necrotic ulcer with an erythematous rim and yellow-green, purulent exudate on the right thigh. There is another lesion with a hemorrhagic dark-bluish bulla and surrounding erythematous, indurated skin. Leukocyte count is 800/mm3 with 10% neutrophils.
Item 1 of 2
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s skin lesions?
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Question 31 of 40
31. Question
Item 2 of 2
Which of the following statements regarding this patient’s current condition is most accurate?
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Question 32 of 40
32. Question
A 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in a stuporous condition by his parents. The patient returned from a visit to South America a week ago and shortly thereafter developed high fever, headache, severe myalgia, and joint pain. He had similar symptoms following a trip to Mexico 5 years ago, but the symptoms resolved spontaneously within a few days. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 128/min. Examination is notable for multiple petechiae, purpuric lesions, and hepatomegaly. There is severe lower back pain at rest and with movement. Laboratory studies reveal marked thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and elevated liver aminotransferases. Which of the following most likely accounts for the severity of this patient’s current illness?
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Question 33 of 40
33. Question
A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of high fever, chills, and generalized weakness. The patient was hospitalized 6 weeks ago due to polymicrobial sepsis and recently finished several weeks of antibiotics. Her blood cultures at diagnosis were positive for Escherichia coli, Bacteroides, and Peptostreptococcus, and repeat cultures after antibiotics were negative. She believes that “the antibiotics were stopped too soon and now the infection has come back.” The patient also has a history of chronic abdominal pain and has had an extensive diagnostic workup, which was unrevealing. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs and works as a nursing assistant. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F), blood pressure is 110/64 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 16/min. She has no scleral icterus, and oropharyngeal mucosa is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is diffusely tender with superficial palpation, but no guarding or rebound tenderness is present. Bowel sounds are normal. Rectal examination reveals brown stool that is occult blood negative. Blood cultures are obtained, and empiric antibiotics are administered. Blood cultures grow E coli and Enterococcus faecalis within 48 hours. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s recurrent bacteremia?
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Question 34 of 40
34. Question
A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to recurrent fever, chills, and excessive sweating. The symptoms began a few days ago and seem to recur every 48 hours. The patient recently returned from a trip to Latin America. Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F). Physical examination is otherwise normal. Laboratory studies are notable for anemia and thrombocytopenia. A blood smear with Giemsa staining demonstrates red blood cell inclusions. Chloroquine and primaquine are prescribed. The addition of primaquine to the treatment regimen is most likely to have which of the following effects?
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Question 35 of 40
35. Question
A 52-year-old active smoker comes to the office due to a 2-week history of malaise, shortness of breath, and decreased appetite. The patient has a history of bicuspid aortic valve and hypertension. His temperature is 39 C (102.2 F), blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. On examination, the patient has a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that is unchanged from previous visits; there is a new decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard in the third intercostal space at the left sternal border. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin is 9.3 g/dL and leukocytes are 16,500/mm3. Blood cultures are positive for Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S bovis). Additional workup for this patient should focus on which of the following conditions?
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Question 36 of 40
36. Question
A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to 3 months of urinary frequency and urgency. He has also had discomfort in the pelvic region and pain during ejaculation. The patient’s symptoms temporarily improved during a week-long course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for urinary tract infection but recurred shortly after treatment concluded. He has a history of hypertension well controlled with lisinopril. He also had a single episode of gonorrhea 20 years ago that was treated with penicillin. The patient has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit 4 years ago. He drinks alcohol on social occasions and does not use illicit drugs. He is monogamous with his wife. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. Genital examination shows a circumcised penis with no urethral discharge. Testicular examination shows no abnormalities. The prostate is slightly enlarged with minimal tenderness and no nodules. Urinalysis shows 20-30 leukocytes/HPF and moderate bacteruria but no erythrocytes. Prostate-specific antigen level is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
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Question 37 of 40
37. Question
A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to 2 days of fever, chills, shortness of breath, and cough productive of yellow-green sputum. According to the daughter, the patient appeared lethargic and mildly confused this morning and refused to eat breakfast as he wanted to stay in bed. He regularly sees a physician and is up to date on vaccinations, including the annual flu vaccine. The patient has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He currently takes hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metformin. He smokes a pack of cigarettes a day and drinks alcohol occasionally. The patient lives alone but his daughter lives nearby. Temperature is 39.4 C (103 F), blood pressure is 104/62 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 28/min. Pulse oximetry shows 86% on room air but improves to 93% on 2 L of oxygen. He appears mildly lethargic. Bronchial breath sounds and crackles are heard over the right middle and lower chest fields. Heart sounds are normal. Neurological examination shows no focal deficits. Complete blood count shows a leukocyte count of 17,000/mm3 with 80% neutrophils. Blood glucose is 100 mg/dL. Chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right middle and lower lobes. Blood cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
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Question 38 of 40
38. Question
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic in November for follow-up of acute sinus symptoms. He developed sinus and nasal congestion, frontal headache, and subjective fever a week ago. The patient was evaluated at an urgent care facility, and acute sinusitis was diagnosed. He had improvement in his symptoms after treatment with antibiotics, which he completed today. Medical history is notable for hypertension and hypercholesterolemia, for which he takes lisinopril and simvastatin. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows no cervical lymphadenopathy or sinus tenderness to percussion. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The patient received a tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis vaccine 5 years ago and an influenza vaccine last year. In addition to administering an annual influenza vaccine today, which of the following is most appropriate for this patient?
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Question 39 of 40
39. Question
A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to progressive back pain for the past several weeks. He has also had poor appetite and lost 2.3 kg (5 lb) over this period. The patient notes productive cough but attributes this to chronic cigarette smoking. He has had no back trauma, lower extremity weakness or numbness, or loss of bladder or bowel control. The patient has no prior medical problems and takes no medications. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 25 years and is trying to quit. The patient came to the United States 2 months ago from Eastern Europe to visit his son. Temperature is 37.4 C (99.4 F), blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. Lung auscultation reveals occasional left-sided rhonchi and crackles. Back examination shows midline tenderness in the lower thoracic region. Neurologic examination is normal. Chest x-ray reveals a cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe, and spine imaging indicates vertebral osteomyelitis and discitis. The patient is placed in airborne isolation and sputum samples are obtained. Sputum for acid-fast bacilli is positive, and antituberculosis treatment is initiated. His close contacts are advised to obtain medical evaluation. Health care personnel who administered care to the patient prior to infection control measures undergo tuberculin skin testing, and the results are negative. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step for the health care workers with potential exposure?
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Question 40 of 40
40. Question
A 22-year-old woman comes to the office in April due to sinus congestion. Three weeks ago, she had subjective fever, myalgia, nasal congestion, sore throat, and dry cough a few days after visiting her sick nephew. Her symptoms initially improved with over-the-counter analgesics and decongestants, but she now has had 2 weeks of purulent nasal discharge, throbbing headache, and facial pain. The patient has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with premeal insulin boluses and an insulin pump for continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion. She also has a history of childhood eczema. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F), blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Physical examination shows swollen and erythematous nasal turbinates with yellowish-green nasal secretions. The left maxillary sinus is tender to palpation, with no sinus transillumination. The tympanic membranes and oropharyngeal mucosa are normal. Cervical lymph nodes are not enlarged or tender and lungs are clear to auscultation. Fingerstick blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
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